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Gene technologies allow the study and alteration of gene function allowing a better understanding of organism function and the design of new industrial and medical processes: AQA A‑Level Biology questions

Every AQA A-Level Biology exam question on 3.8.4 Gene technologies allow the study and alteration of gene function allowing a better understanding of organism function and the design of new industrial and medical processes, 2016–2025, with its mark scheme and examiner’s report.

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  1. June 2025 Paper 2, question 04.2: Currently, the most effective treatment for HA is weekly or monthly injections of factor VIII. Scientists investigated the effectiveness of a gene therapy produ
  2. June 2025 Paper 2, question 09.2: What is a DNA probe? [2 marks]
  3. June 2025 Paper 2, question 09.3: The identity of each family member can be determined from the relative position of the bands shown in Figure 5. Use information in Figure 5 to: • complete Table
  4. June 2024 Paper 2, question 07.1: BamH1 and HindIII are both restriction endonucleases. Figure 4 shows the positions where these enzymes cut a linear molecule of DNA. Figure 4 In two experiments
  5. June 2024 Paper 2, question 07.2: Suggest how you could determine the size of the different DNA fragments produced in these experiments. [2 marks]
  6. June 2024 Paper 2, question 07.3: How many DNA fragments would be produced in experiment 2 if the original DNA molecule was a plasmid? [1 mark]
  7. June 2024 Paper 2, question 07.4: Describe how restriction endonuclease and DNA ligase are used to insert a gene into a plasmid. [2 marks]
  8. June 2023 Paper 2, question 09.1: Describe how STRs could be removed from a sample of DNA. [2 marks]
  9. June 2023 Paper 2, question 09.2: Genetic fingerprinting using STRs requires amplification of the STRs using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The short base sequences either side of a specif
  10. June 2023 Paper 2, question 09.3: A single STR molecule consisting of a 12 base pair sequence of AGAT was amplified 50 times using PCR. Calculate the total number of base pairs in all the STR mo
  11. June 2023 Paper 2, question 09.4: During genetic fingerprinting, the different STRs are separated by gel electrophoresis. Give two features of STRs which enable them to be separated by gel elect
  12. June 2022 Paper 2, question 10.2: Genetic testing, using DNA from saliva, can screen for all known harmful mutations in both genes (lines 5–6). Describe how this DNA could be screened for all kn
  13. June 2022 Paper 3, question 04.2: Give two reasons why bacteria are able to use human DNA to produce human proteins. [2 marks] 1 2
  14. June 2022 Paper 3, question 04.3: Suggest and explain one reason why bacteria might not be able to produce every human protein. [1 mark]
  15. June 2022 Paper 3, question 04.4: The enhancer stimulates region M. Name regions M and N shown in Figure 7. [2 marks] Region M Region N
  16. June 2022 Paper 3, question 04.5: Explain the purpose of the marker gene. [1 mark]
  17. June 2022 Paper 3, question 04.6: The enhancer only stimulates region M in the milk-producing glands of a goat. Suggest two explanations for the importance of the enhancer being included in the
  18. November 2021 Paper 2, question 08.1: Describe and explain how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a DNA fragment. [4 marks]
  19. November 2021 Paper 2, question 08.2: Explain the shape of the curve in Figure 9. [2 marks]
  20. November 2021 Paper 3, question 06.1: The scientists used a radioactively labelled DNA probe to show that the cells of tobacco plant leaves contained the SUT1 gene. Describe how they would do this.
All 45 questions on Gene technologies allow the study and alteration of gene function allowing a better understanding of organism function and the design of new industrial and medical processes, as a list
  1. June 2025, Paper 2, Q04.2 (5 marks): Currently, the most effective treatment for HA is weekly or monthly injections of factor VIII. Scientists investigated the effectiveness of a gene therapy produ
  2. June 2025, Paper 2, Q09.2 (2 marks): What is a DNA probe? [2 marks]
  3. June 2025, Paper 2, Q09.3 (3 marks): The identity of each family member can be determined from the relative position of the bands shown in Figure 5. Use information in Figure 5 to: • complete Table
  4. June 2024, Paper 2, Q07.1 (2 marks): BamH1 and HindIII are both restriction endonucleases. Figure 4 shows the positions where these enzymes cut a linear molecule of DNA. Figure 4 In two experiments
  5. June 2024, Paper 2, Q07.2 (2 marks): Suggest how you could determine the size of the different DNA fragments produced in these experiments. [2 marks]
  6. June 2024, Paper 2, Q07.3 (1 mark): How many DNA fragments would be produced in experiment 2 if the original DNA molecule was a plasmid? [1 mark]
  7. June 2024, Paper 2, Q07.4 (2 marks): Describe how restriction endonuclease and DNA ligase are used to insert a gene into a plasmid. [2 marks]
  8. June 2023, Paper 2, Q09.1 (2 marks): Describe how STRs could be removed from a sample of DNA. [2 marks]
  9. June 2023, Paper 2, Q09.2 (2 marks): Genetic fingerprinting using STRs requires amplification of the STRs using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The short base sequences either side of a specif
  10. June 2023, Paper 2, Q09.3 (2 marks): A single STR molecule consisting of a 12 base pair sequence of AGAT was amplified 50 times using PCR. Calculate the total number of base pairs in all the STR mo
  11. June 2023, Paper 2, Q09.4 (2 marks): During genetic fingerprinting, the different STRs are separated by gel electrophoresis. Give two features of STRs which enable them to be separated by gel elect
  12. June 2022, Paper 2, Q10.2 (4 marks): Genetic testing, using DNA from saliva, can screen for all known harmful mutations in both genes (lines 5–6). Describe how this DNA could be screened for all kn
  13. June 2022, Paper 3, Q04.2 (2 marks): Give two reasons why bacteria are able to use human DNA to produce human proteins. [2 marks] 1 2
  14. June 2022, Paper 3, Q04.3 (1 mark): Suggest and explain one reason why bacteria might not be able to produce every human protein. [1 mark]
  15. June 2022, Paper 3, Q04.4 (2 marks): The enhancer stimulates region M. Name regions M and N shown in Figure 7. [2 marks] Region M Region N
  16. June 2022, Paper 3, Q04.5 (1 mark): Explain the purpose of the marker gene. [1 mark]
  17. June 2022, Paper 3, Q04.6 (2 marks): The enhancer only stimulates region M in the milk-producing glands of a goat. Suggest two explanations for the importance of the enhancer being included in the
  18. November 2021, Paper 2, Q08.1 (4 marks): Describe and explain how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a DNA fragment. [4 marks]
  19. November 2021, Paper 2, Q08.2 (2 marks): Explain the shape of the curve in Figure 9. [2 marks]
  20. November 2021, Paper 3, Q06.1 (4 marks): The scientists used a radioactively labelled DNA probe to show that the cells of tobacco plant leaves contained the SUT1 gene. Describe how they would do this.
  21. November 2020, Paper 2, Q09.1 (2 marks): Describe how enzymes could be used to insert the GH gene into a plasmid. [2 marks]
  22. November 2020, Paper 2, Q09.2 (2 marks): Microinjection of DNA into fertilised egg cells is a frequent method of producing transgenic fish. However, the insertion of the transferred gene into nuclear D
  23. November 2020, Paper 2, Q09.3 (2 marks): Using Table 3, what can you conclude about the effectiveness of the GH gene on the growth of zebrafish? [2 marks]
  24. November 2020, Paper 2, Q09.4 (2 marks): Explain how two features of the design of this investigation helped to ensure the validity of any conclusions obtained. Do not include calculating the mean or S
  25. June 2019, Paper 2, Q02.3 (3 marks): Some scientists have concluded that this method of gene therapy will be a more effective long-term treatment for SCD than HSCT. Use all the information provided
  26. June 2019, Paper 2, Q08.1 (2 marks): What is a DNA probe? [2 marks]
  27. June 2019, Paper 2, Q08.2 (2 marks): Describe how the DNA is broken down into smaller fragments. [2 marks]
  28. June 2019, Paper 2, Q08.3 (1 mark): The DNA on the nylon membrane is treated to form single strands. Explain why. [1 mark]
  29. June 2019, Paper 2, Q08.4 (2 marks): Lane 1 of Figure 7 enabled the size of the different viral fragments to be determined. Suggest and explain how. [2 marks] The lengths of the viral DNA fragments
  30. June 2019, Paper 2, Q08.5 (1 mark): Which volunteers had at least one of the viral DNA fragments with 250 base pairs or 535 base pairs? [1 mark]
  31. June 2019, Paper 3, Q07.1 (25 marks): The importance of DNA as an information-carrying molecule and its use in gene technologies. [25 marks] OR
  32. June 2018, Paper 2, Q08.5 (2 marks): Describe the roles of two named types of enzymes used to insert DNA fragments into plasmids. [2 marks] Type of enzyme Role Type of enzyme Role
  33. June 2018, Paper 2, Q08.6 (2 marks): The soybean cells were screened for the presence of the P34 protein. This process involved the use of gel electrophoresis to separate proteins extracted from so
  34. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.1 (1 mark): Explain the role of reverse transcriptase in RT-PCR. [1 mark]
  35. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.2 (1 mark): Explain the role of DNA polymerase in RT-PCR. [1 mark]
  36. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.3 (2 marks): Any DNA in the sample is hydrolysed by enzymes before the sample is added to the reaction mixture. Explain why. [2 marks]
  37. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.4 (2 marks): Figure 9 shows the results from using RT-PCR to detect RNA in two different samples, A and B. Figure 9 A quantitative comparison can be made of the amount of RN
  38. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.5 (1 mark): Suggest one reason why DNA replication stops in the polymerase chain reaction. [1 mark]
  39. June 2017, Paper 2, Q08.6 (2 marks): Scientists have used the RT-PCR method to detect the presence of different RNA viruses in patients suffering from respiratory diseases. The scientists produced
  40. June 2017, Paper 2, Q10.7 (2 marks): 1 0 Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a non-reversible brain disorder that develops over a number of years. At the start of 2014 the number of Americans with AD was e
  41. Specimen, Paper 2, Q05.1 (2 marks): Suggest why the plasmids were injected into the eggs of silkworms, rather than into the silkworms. [2 marks] 0 5 . 1
  42. Specimen, Paper 2, Q05.2 (2 marks): Suggest why the scientists used a marker gene and why they used the EGFP gene. [2 marks] 0 5 . 2
  43. Specimen, Paper 2, Q05.3 (1 mark): The scientists ensured the spider gene was expressed only in cells within the silk glands. What would the scientists have inserted into the plasmid along with t
  44. Specimen, Paper 2, Q05.4 (2 marks): 1 2
  45. Specimen, Paper 2, Q10.5 (2 marks): Read the following passage carefully. A large and growing number of disorders are now known to be due to types of mitochondrial disease (MD). MD often affects s

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